Nothing blindly at all...Romans 11 says something is going to happen in the future with the Jews, AFTER He is done with us Gentiles...So we know that hasn't happened yet... Actually, it doesn't say that at all. Some people interpret the phrase “until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in” to be a reference to the millennium or some such era, but the text does not plainly or literally say that. Some people interpret this to speak of some time in the future, but, again, that is purely an interpretation based partly on some preconceived ideas of what ought to happen to Jews in the future.
There's far, far too much scripture in both Testaments that allude to the reign of Jesus Christ on earth to deny it...
There is a lot of symbolic language that some folks falsely interpret literally to refer to Jesus reigning in body on the earth. Problem is there is absolutely nothing in the NT to support that idea. Jesus and His apostles were not literalists, in the modern sense. They interpreted most of the OT prophecies about Messiah symbolically to refer to the present reign of Christ over the nations. Cf. 1 Cor. 15:23-25.
You guys claim that scripture doesn't mean what it says ...
And you guys claim it says what it doesn't plainly or literally say. You have to drink the futurist dispensational kool aid to get to where you guys end up.
Actually, it doesn't say that at all. Some people interpret the phrase “until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in” to be a reference to the millennium or some such era, but the text does not plainly or literally say that. Some people interpret this to speak of some time in the future, but, again, that is purely an interpretation based partly on some preconceived ideas of what ought to happen to Jews in the future.OK, I'll play...What then does it mean???
Rom 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel,
What's that mean??? Blindness in part has come to Israel...
until the fullness of the Gentiles be come in.
Until obviously means future...Did it happen??? When??? Will it happen??? Or does it mean something else entirely???
There is a lot of symbolic language that some folks falsely interpret literally to refer to Jesus reigning in body on the earth. Problem is there is absolutely nothing in the NT to support that idea. Jesus and His apostles were not literalists, in the modern sense. They interpreted most of the OT prophecies about Messiah symbolically to refer to the present reign of Christ over the nations. Cf. 1 Cor. 15:23-25.
1Co 15:21 For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.
1Co 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.
1Co 15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
Is this symbolic??? Or did Jesus show up like you guys claim in 70 A.D.??? And did all dead folks come alive at that time???
1Co 15:24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. 1Co 15:25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
According to this, the Kingdom doesn't get delivered until Jesus puts down all rule, power and authority...And put ALL His enemies under his feet...So what's up with all this stuff??? And what about blinding Israel, and the fullness of the Gentiles???