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To: MarianoApologeticus
Simply stated: the Old Testament law about rape is that when a rape occurs the rapist receives the death penalty (Deuteronomy 22:25-27). Yet, since it is evilbible.com’s contention that the Bible commands or simply does not condemn rape they did not make any reference to this text at all

Well, since you mention Deuteronomy 22, let's see what it says, beside the cherry-picked verses you list. Verses 28 and 29 say that if a man finds a girl in the field who is not engaged and seizes her and lies with her, he can make her his wife by paying 50 shekels to the father [quote ] "because he has VIOLATED her."

But he doesn't die for his rape. He pays for the "damaged goods" and they are his. And the fact that the girls was raped? Obviously the issue of violating women is not considered evil in itself in the eyes of the Hebrew God (if the Bible is truly God's word, that is), but a suitable means of acquiring a wife (for a nominal fee)!

There is no penalty for rape itself in the OT . There is penalty for violating someone else's property because it's considered stealing. It has to do with property, and women are treated like property in the Hebrew Bible. If she is "paid for" or otherwise claimed by a man, you may not touch her. But if she is free, and you want her, you can simply rape her, pay 50 shekels in silver, and she is yours!  No automatic death penalty for rape for a nominal fee.

And you are telling me the Old Testament doesn't condone rape? 

46 posted on 08/12/2009 8:42:05 AM PDT by kosta50 (Don't look up, the truth is all around you)
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To: kosta50
The Old Testament doesn't condone rape it condemns it.

Since you had previously been made aware of Deuteronomy 22:25-27 you know that it is an utter falsehood to write that “There is no penalty for rape itself in the OT.”

You will note that I provided the URL to Atheism, the Bible, Rape and EvilBible.com which discusses the issue at length.

Also, within that series, I dissected all of the Deuteronomy 22 texts at this post.

Therein, I explain that the Hebrew “taphas” refers to catching, handling, taking hold, grasping, etc. and “shakab” refers to laying down. There is actually no reason to think that the woman was raped as in this scenario both consented and so restitution is made and a shotgun wedding ensues.

Well, “VIOLATE” is certain an interesting and translation of ′amah but even granting the inflammatory translation—and I realize that this is very difficult cultural context of we moderners to understand—unmarried loss of virginity was considered a violation or cultural norms.

The various scenarios that Deuteronomy 22 are very clear (if you have not been told to read “rape” into all of them) in this case she willingly engages him when he makes his advances and so she has to marry him and he makes restitution to the family which he has otherwise shamed.

47 posted on 09/25/2009 6:27:00 AM PDT by MarianoApologeticus (Exegesis, not eisegesis)
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