...In all time and all countries the same doctrines...was false because:
Originated by heretics and condemned as heretical by two Popes in the fifth and sixth centuries, the dogma of the Assumption of Mary comes to mind.
It should be clear to any reasonable person that the subject of the statement is the notion of or the belief in the Assumption of Mary, which did not become a DOGMA until 1950. Which, btw itself constitutes a change in "all time and all countries the same doctrines". That which was first not taught for six centuries within the church was brought into the church. That constitutes a change. When it was first brought into the church it was condemned as heretical, but that which began to be taught within the church in the six and seventh centuries constituted a change. When that which was not dogma became dogma in 1950, that also constituted a change.
What denomination are you? And if you again fail to answer, what is it you are ashamed or afraid of?
Did Pope Nicolas affirm a phony decree or not? Did Pope Nicolas authoritatively cite a phony decree and falsely attribute it to Pope Gelasius, or did he not? Answer and then I will answer your question as I promised.
Cordially,
Answer and then I will answer your question as I promised.I have no idea. Based on the shoddy research you have been citing I am certain you do not either.
What denomination are you? And if you again (is this the third or is it the fourth time?) fail to answer, what is it you are ashamed or afraid of?