The decree at Trent doesn't matter. Without going into the history of HOW scripture was defined as infallible or WHICH scriptures were defined as infallible, I'm trying to determine if Catholics really believe the scriptures are uniquely infallible-defined as written by God, without error and different than other writings?
I've yet to receive an answer.
Sure. The Scriptures are divinely inspired.
Written by God? Not in the sense that Allah dictated every word of the Koran to Mohammed, and he just wrote it down. But the Prophets and the writers of Scripture were divinely inspired. There are no errors and no teachings that conflict with God’s will.
But the Bible can be a difficult work that needs interpretation, in some places more than others. St. Augustine wrote several works on interpreting the Bible. In his latest version, he said that it should be read literally where that is possible. Otherwise it should be read allegorically or typologically or in other ways, as indicated.
That’s why it’s very difficult for an individual to sit down with a Bible for the first time and figure it all out. Generally, Protestants are taught the Bible as children and learn from their Pastor and others, and Catholics are taught by catechists, sermons, Catholic commentators, and various other sources in the Church.
Could God inspire someone to understand the Bible without any help from others? Sure, but that’s not normally the way He works. You can be inspired upon reading a particular psssage, but that is usually within the norms that have developed in your understanding over the years.
Catholics and Protestants largely get the same messages from the Bible, except that Protestants tend to exclude the meanings of certain passages. Most notably, when Jesus says to take and eat, this is My Body, and this is My Blood, they deny that the words are to be taken literally, much like those who turned away when Jesus said earlier, “unless you eat My Body and drink My Blood . . . .”
Well, of course Protestants believe they are reading it correctly. But that just shows that there can be different ways to read the same passage, and you need help with the interpretation. Protestant Pastors interpret it one way, the Catholic Church interprets it another.
“I’ve yet to receive an answer”
Simply not true. You have failed to understand the answers, you have misrepresented the answers, what you clearly have NOT done is been honest in your claims - either about the answers given or even the simple fact that you HAVE been answered.
Speaking of NOT answering, post 401 awaits your answer rather than another evasion. Care to honestly answer it?