Nope. The “Lord” cannot be turned into a generic “master”. If it were simply a matter of style then the verse could be read as “LORD the lord”.
Understandably part of the confusion is the result of substituting “LORD” for YHWH or Jehovah as is done at Ps. 8:1,9 where YHWH and adown are both used.
“Adoun by itself can be any master, and when used alone it never means God. If God is referred to as the master it is always qualified.”
I just gave you the example of Jos. 3:11 where adown is used to refer to God. The context is unambiguous therefore it is “Lord” not “lord” and not just “master” either.
“Who was David's master? David himself was anointed. It was David who was hoping to and laid down the foundations for the Temple but never actually saw it finished. Yet he is the founder of the Temple and the Temple bore his name.”
At Matt. 22:42 Jesus asks the Pharisees who they think the Christ is, whose son is he? and they answer, “David's”, though David was anointed as king.
David by inspiration calls the Christ his “Lord” not just a generic owner, but a title of respect for a superior.
The Pharisees had said the Christ was David's son already so Jesus asks how The Christ could be both Lord of David and his son, one and the same. (Matt.22:41-44)
David wasn't talking about himself in Ps. 110.
At 1 Kings 1:48 David said Solomon would sit on “the throne of David” and any of David's lineage if king would sit on David's throne.
But since David was not talking about himself Ps. 110 is talking about the Christ (Lord)sitting at the right hand of YHWH, Jehovah, (LORD).
“Who sat on the throne of David if not David? And who started the Second Temple if not David? And was he not anointed by God? And what are Psalms if not liturgical chants intended to be chanted by Levite priests in David's Temple?”
Christ sat on David's throne as Peter said at Acts 2:30, David being a prophet and the Psalms being prophetic of the Christ.
The second temple was started by those who returned from exile, David made preparations for the first.
Not surprisingly the Jews didn't really care for such an idea as the Christ being both Lord and son of David but so what?
“Besides, Jesus never mentions verse 4.”
But David did. It show he wasn't talking about himself but prophetically about the Christ who would be both high priest and king.
No because YHWH doesn't mean "LORD". It means GOD. English translations call it the LORD. The other word means master or lord.
ust gave you the example of Jos. 3:11 where adown is used to refer to God
And I told you it was done with a QUALIFICATION ("of the world"). Otherwise it could never be associated with God by itself. However YHWH or Adonai, or Ha-Shem are ALWAYS associated with God by themselves. Adoun is not. It must be qualified in order to apply to divinity. By itself it never does.
At Matt. 22:42 Jesus asks the Pharisees who they think the Christ is, whose son is he? and they answer, “David's”, though David was anointed as king.
No he doesn't. He asks "Who do you think is the anointed one?" (Greek: christos). And they answer David's because that's what Judaism teaches: the Jewish meshiyah (messiah, the anointed one) will be "of the seed of David" and therefore a king. And all Israeli kings were anointed and had the title the "son of God" just like the angels.
David by inspiration calls the Christ his “Lord” not just a generic owner, but a title of respect for a superior
This is all Christian innovation. David doesn't call anyone anything. This is a psalm to be chanted by a Levite priest "YHWH said to my lord (David)..." David being the High Priest for founding the city of Jerusalem and the first Temple.
David wasn't talking about himself in Ps. 110.
He certainly wasn't talking about Jesus.
and any of David's lineage if king would sit on David's throne. But since David was not talking about himself Ps. 110 is talking about the Christ
Pure speculation. It doesn't follow. Jesus was not a king, did not sit on David's throne and was never mentioned by name.
Christ sat on David's throne as Peter said at Acts 2:30, David being a prophet and the Psalms being prophetic of the Christ
Peter? I believe Peter was misquoting Ps 132:25 which says "The LORD has sworn to David a truth from which He will not turn back: 'Of the fruit of your body I will set upon your throne.'" Where is the prophesy? Where is Jesus in it?
Isn't this the same Peter who only a few verses earlier calls Jesus a man? "Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God...Act 2:22, and then again ""And on the basis of faith in His name, it is the name of Jesus which has strengthened this man whom you see and know..." (Act 3:16).
Not surprisingly the Jews didn't really care for such an idea as the Christ being both Lord and son of David but so what?
It's not that they didn't care. He doesn't fit the requirements for the Jewish messiah based on the Old Testament. This is like Mormons saying Christians don't care that Jesus visited America...it's simply not what the Christians believe.
[“Besides, Jesus never mentions verse 4.”] But David did. It show he wasn't talking about himself but prophetically about the Christ who would be both high priest and king
Christ is not mentioned in any way. And it's not David speaking. It's a liturgical song chanted by a Levite priest.