Why you say Paul, “uses “all” in the sense of “many” because in v 18 he says “all” and in the next verse he repeats the same though and says “many”....”
WHEREAS the Catholic Catechism says just the opposite!
“402 All men are implicated in Adam's sin, as St. Paul affirms: “By one man's disobedience many (that is, all men) were made sinners”: “sin came into the world through one man and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all men sinned.”289 The Apostle contrasts the universality of sin and death with the universality of salvation in Christ. “Then as one man's trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one man's act of righteousness leads to acquittal and life for all men.”290”
In the first sentence: “many (that is, all men)” not “all” in the sense of “many”! Do you see that difference?
“The Church teaches that grace displaces sin.”
But not for Mary. The Catholic Church teaches she is exempt from sin and therefore had no sins to remit or displace.
“Mary was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin at the first moment of her animation, and sanctifying grace was given to her before sin could have taken effect in her soul.”
But Paul's “all” is inclusive without exemption for Mary since she, like all sinners, would grow old and die.
The woman of Rev. 12 is un-named and she gives birth in heaven
“But she gives birth to Christ, and toward the end of the chapter is described as the mother of all who keep His testimony and obey God. So, however poeticized the account in Rev 12 is, it is sufficient ground by itself to call Mary the Mother of the Holy Church”
Nay, not so, as Paul in Galatians names that woman, “the Jerusalem above” (4:26) and in 4:31 says, ‘We are children of the free woman’. Therefore the “woman” at the end of the Rev. 12 is not Mary.
Was my previous explanation too difficult for you?
“It did not explain anything and you referred to a different verse. Please explain why do you think verses 12 and 19 refer to different things. I understand that the language is different. Please explain what the difference signifies.”
You had previously said, “He uses “all” in the sense of “many” because in v 18 he says “all” and in the next verse he repeats the same though and says “many”:
Uhhh...No. In vs. 19 Paul speaks of two groups, one that was constituted sinners by Adams disobedience and 2, those, who by the obedience of Christ, were constituted just.
One group to the exclusion of the other, the rest of mankind as Thayer’s lexicon comments on “the many” in these vss.
In vss. 18, 19 Paul is not just repeating himself but expresses a slightly different aspect of his argument.
In vs. 18 Paul says a decision, a judgment is made for acquittal from condemnation,
While in vs. 19 Paul uses the word kathistemi (made or constituted) instead of eis (result or intent) as in vs. 18.
Thus in vs. 19 those many are considered righteous.
and this was my conclusion: Thus Paul doesn't equate “all” with “many” nor was he a Talmudist. He had a grasp of the Greek language that is missed in your quotes and comments.
That would mean Mary is part of that “all”, a sinner, contrary to Catholic teaching.
I referred only to vss. 18, 19 since those were the ones under discussion in the above.
“You, I, St. Peter ans St. Paul will receive our bodies at the second coming of Christ. Mary however received her glorified body following her death. There is a difference; but the difference does not amount to a contradiction with what St. Paul wrote.”
Then since Peter and Paul's corporeal bodies (or what remains of them) are still in their graves then they were raised to heaven with what? Are they still awaiting their heavenly bodies? If so, what kind of bodies were they resurrected with, neither corporeal nor glorified heavenly ones?
“You, I, St. Peter ans St. Paul will receive our bodies at the second coming of Christ.”
The Catechism also teaches that Mary was free from all sin, so in the end both my analysis and the Catechism agree that the passages in Romans 5 do not implicate Mary in any sin.
But not for Mary
It is true that in her case grace had filled her since conception, whereas ordinarily graced diplaces sin already in place. That is called the doctrine of Immaculate Conception.
We are children of the free woman’ [Gal 4:31]
That woman is Sara, Abraham's wife, of whom both we descend spiritually. The passage has nothing to do with Mary.
In vs. 18 Paul says a decision, a judgment is made for acquittal from condemnation, While in vs. 19 Paul uses the word kathistemi (made or constituted) instead of eis (result or intent) as in vs. 18. Thus in vs. 19 those many are considered righteous
I still see not difference in substance between either verses 18 and 19 or verses 12 and 15. Also, we are not talking of the many that are justified, but of those -- either all or many -- who sinned.
| "ALL" used | "MANY" used |
|---|---|
| [12] Wherefore as by one man sin entered into this world, and by sin death; and so death passed upon all men, in whom all have sinned. | [15] ...by the offence of one, many died |
| [18]...by the offence of one, unto all men to condemnation | [19]...by the disobedience of one man, many were made sinners |
they were raised to heaven with what? Are they still awaiting their heavenly bodies?
Sts. Paul and Peter, and all the elect are raised as souls, and they are awaiting the glorified bodies today. Mary is the exception in that she preceded us in heaven in the glorified body.