The Greek word “eos” is used as a conjunction in Matthew 1:25, it connects two phrases, Mary was a virgin and when that ended just as “eos” is used as a conjunction in verse 17.
But it’s not surprising that a reliance upon the distorted views of marital relations that some the so-called “church fathers” held would produce a narrative of an ever virginal Mary no matter what the Scriptures said otherwise.
Who needs the Scriptures when you have that work of fiction and fraud, The Infancy Gospel of James? That’s your “historical fact” source.
Alex, the above mentioned individual writes "But it’s not surprising that a reliance upon the distorted views of marital relations that some the so-called “church fathers” held..."
It never ceases to amaze me that 21st century Protestants claim to know the scriptures better, and have superior understanding of Middle Eastern marital relations than the 2nd and 3rd century Middle Eastern Christian apologists.
The Church bases its understanding of what those people wrote in their own cultural milieu and language they actually spoke, which is the same language and cultural milieu that produced the scriptures.
Yes, "eos" is a conjunction connecting two phrases. That proves what? It says nothing of what happened after Jesus was born.