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To: RnMomof7
"You may want to make him a "priest" but there was no priesthood in the NT CHURCH"

That is patently false, but since the hundreds of previous rebuttals in this forum have not opened your eyes no amount of additional information from me will have any effect. That St Paul refers to his “priestly ministry” in Romans 15:15-16, that he administered the sacraments, called himself a “steward of the mysteries”, and was celibate falls into the walks like a duck category. I would suggest you read "The Catholic Perspective on Paul: Paul and the Origins of Catholic Christianity" by Taylor Marshall. Marshall is a former Episcopalian priest and offers an interesting Protestant perspective.

Celibacy only became holy when the priests in Spain started to leave church property to their wives and children...

Again patently false. Although the first documented referenced came from the Synod of Elvira which was held in 305 AD in Hispania Baetica which is in modern day Spain, there were numerous other contemporaneous citations, not the least of which was by St. Ambrose who referred to the Old testament practice of priests refraining from sex in the days leading up to sacrifice and how the [then] modern priests were obliged to do the same. $$$$$$$ had nothing to do with it except in the propaganda of the reformation.

976 posted on 02/12/2011 11:22:25 AM PST by Natural Law (As a Catholic I know I am held to a higher standard (but it's worth it).)
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To: Natural Law; RnMomof7
That is patently false, but since the hundreds of previous rebuttals in this forum have not opened your eyes no amount of additional information from me will have any effect

Problem is that the 'hundreds of previous rebuttals' were in themselves false! Repeating falsehoods doesn't make a truth no matter how often it's repeated.

$$$$$$$ had nothing to do with it except in the propaganda of the reformation Roman Catholic Church.

There. Fixed your mistake.

Hoss

986 posted on 02/12/2011 12:56:58 PM PST by HossB86
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To: Natural Law
Again patently false. Although the first documented referenced came from the Synod of Elvira which was held in 305 AD in Hispania Baetica which is in modern day Spain,

That (Elvira) was a LOCAL council valid only for that diocese it was not an ecumenical church council and so not binding on the entire church .... the REASON that council so ruled was because of the loss of church property to the families of married priests. .

there were numerous other contemporaneous citations, not the least of which was by St. Ambrose who referred to the Old testament practice of priests refraining from sex in the days leading up to sacrifice and how the [then] modern priests were obliged to do the same. $$$$$$$ had nothing to do with it except in the propaganda of the reformation.

It has everything to do with it

It was 1st Lateran Council that decreed that clerical marriages were invalid. 1123

"The church cannot escape the grip of the laity unless priests first escape from their wives". Pope Gregory VII

990 posted on 02/12/2011 1:52:06 PM PST by RnMomof7
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