The KJV in many places copied the then-existing English language scriptures that were Catholic.
Why do you claim the Holy Scriptures were not available in English before KJV, when the historical facts are otherwise?
The point has been made by others, some of them knowledgable catholics, that the English language didn’t even exist before the time of the KJV. The “english” Geneva edition of that time would not be understandable to most readers now.