[crosshairs]

Can you explain the difference between Ipsissima Verba Scriptura and Ipsissima Vox Deus is and how that is relevant to the point you are trying to make or to the context of this article?

Gee, throwing out Latin terms isn't going to give you any legitimacy for your argument. Good grief. Pathetic.

[Campion]

Pathetic.

As opposed to throwing out tired, trite, stereotypes like "Catholics aren't known to read The Bible"??

I'm Catholic. I read from the Bible (or The Bible, if you prefer) to my family just tonight. Trite stereotype disproven.

[Natural Law]

"Gee, throwing out Latin terms isn't going to give you any legitimacy for your argument. Good grief. Pathetic."

Like substantive discussions involving law and science, theology requires a knowledge and understanding of some basic Latin terms in order to precisely express ideas and concepts. It saves the embarrassment of trying to argue vagaries and error.

Ipsissima verba Scriptura literally means the exact words of Scripture. Ipsissima vox Deus literally means the exact voice or meaning of God. I used these two terms because there is clearly a difference between them absent a teaching authority to infallibly interpret Scripture.

Anyone frequenting these threads can clearly see that many who as you contend read Scripture have no clue as to what it means and rely on self interpretation to try to arrive at God's meaning. There is ample evidence that those whose religious training is limited to reading Scripture (as opposed to studying Scripture) are nowhere near as familiar as those religiously educated in the traditional Catechism and methodology established before widespread literacy or availability of vernacular bibles. There is certainly ample evidence that, if we use the new Decalogue (the Two Greatest Commandments and the eight Beatitudes) as a standard it more often than not produces less joyful, loving and forgiving Christians.