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To: All

Notice the last few sentences, you gotta ask the three questions.

The Council of Trent was called in 1545 in response to the protestant reformation. One of the things they accomplished at Trent was a “reaffirmation that the 7 disputed books were indeed inspired and would continue to be included in the canon of the Old Testament”. They did not add them. They merely reconfirmed that they should be there. All Christian Bibles for the first 1500 years of Christianity had 46 books in the Old Testament, and all Catholic Bibles today continue to have them. I have noticed that even some King James Bibles now have them. Why is this?

History of the canons of the Old Testament can be confirmed by checking the records of the Councils of Hippo, Carthage, and Trent. They are readily available, as is St. Jerome’s Latin Vulgate and the Septuagint.

Christianity was in effect for between 35-65 years before the Jewish Council of Jamnia was called. As such, the Jewish Council had absolutely no authority whatsoever over Christianity. Suppose that next month of this year, the Jews decided to call a council in order to remove Isaiah and Jeremiah from the Old Testament and then voted to do it.

> Would Protestants also remove these books from the King James bible? It would seem they have already set a precedent. Why do Protestants accept the ruling of the Jewish Council of Jamnia, and at the same time reject the ruling of the Christian Council of Carthage regarding the Old Testament canon? Further still, why do they accept the canon of the New Testament which was decided at the same Christian Council? <


390 posted on 05/25/2012 1:19:25 AM PDT by stpio
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To: stpio
Councils, whether Jewish or Catholic could only give their approval to what already existed. But as Josephus commented in “Against Apion” the Jewish canon recognized some 27 books as Scripture, 27 since some books were combined.

What constituted Scripture in Jesus day was broadly divided into the Law, the Prophets, and the Psalms, (Luke 24:44,45) with no recognition of any apocrypha by any Bible writer.

The apocrypha were never “taken out” of the Bible, they were never part of it.

“I have noticed that even some King James Bibles now have them. Why is this?”

You might ask the publishers since the 1611 edition of the AV had the apocrypha included. Of interest too in the 1611 edition are the translators’ comments.

394 posted on 05/25/2012 3:26:10 AM PDT by count-your-change (You don't have to be brilliant, not being stupid is enough.)
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