To: MarkBsnr
It would have been Greek that was limited to elites, normal folk used Aramaic or Hebrew. Probably the Romans ended the use of Hebrew publicly as a reaction to the Bar Kochba rebellion.
161 posted on
07/14/2012 9:02:22 PM PDT by
jjotto
("Ya could look it up!")
To: jjotto
It would have been Greek that was limited to elites, normal folk used Aramaic or Hebrew. Probably the Romans ended the use of Hebrew publicly as a reaction to the Bar Kochba rebellion. I would use the agument that the NT was composed entirely in Greek (thus making it available for the literate Jews) as well as the Septuagint (also in Greek) which showed that the lingua franca of the region was not Hebrew.
163 posted on
07/14/2012 9:14:32 PM PDT by
MarkBsnr
(I would not believe in the Gospel, if the authority of the Catholic Church did not move me to do so.)
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