Perhaps you could enlighten me on your level of training in Catholic doctrine; who you trained under, where, when, etc. so that I can determine if you are maleducated or simply uneducated in this field. I find it is usually one of these two cases when a non-Catholic assumes a position of authority in arguing against and contradicting educated Catholics on the real teachings and meanings of Church doctrine.
Does this change of attack mean you you have conceded the point on the real meaning of zemiothesetai?
Peace be with you
Here is where you have made a subtle exegetical blunder with the language.
If you look at every occurance in the NT of this word and its various forms, you would have seen that this word ONLY occurs in the passive voice in the NT. Therefore, you should be looking at the sections in the lexicon that show the definition when the passive voice is used. With this critical information, the lexicon would offer its meaning as "to suffer loss, to forfeit something."
Baur, Gingrich, et. al. have clearly documented usage of this word outside the NT; the sub-title of their combined lexicon affirms this. But the NT usage is restricted to the passive voice.
For example, Matt. 16:26, "what does it profit a man if he gains the whole world but ζημιωθη his soul?"
The context clearly indicates the loss of something previously possessed, not the punishment of the soul ... but its complete loss. All the other occurances are the same, passive voice, meaning is clearly "loose something that you could have had, or loose something that you previously had."
Similarly with Mark 8:36, Luke 9:25, 2 Cor. 7:9, and Phil. 3:8. All passive voice, like 1 Cor. 3:15, all meaning "to loose something."
Are you asserting that my seven corroborating sources are ridiculous?
No, I'm asserting that with proper care, these resources can guide you to the correct exegetical understanding of the passage in question ... which, unfortunately, has eluded you to date.