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To: Belteshazzar; vladimir998
"Catholics voted for abortion in 2008, as they normally do."

Would you have Vlad and the other billion plus Catholics who have lived over the last 2000 years disregard the actual meaning of "LOGOS" and accept that the written words of Scripture alone have a talisman-like powers to inerrantly transmit their true meaning across thousands of years and dozens of constantly evolving languages individually to each and every believer? That is something that even Luther and Calvin never attempted. They only quibbled and rebelled over who would be the teaching authority.

Peace be with you

113 posted on 08/09/2012 12:19:55 PM PDT by Natural Law (Jesus did not leave us a Bible, He left us a Church.)
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To: Natural Law
Catholics voted for abortion in 2008, as they normally do."

Should have been:

"Your conception of the Word of God given to men through the apostles and prophets is akin to the Calvinist conception of how Jesus Christ gives Himself to us in the Sacrament, that is, ultimately there is no presence of Jesus Christ, God and Man, in the Sacrament. It is all symbolic, His plain and clear words being dismissed as nonsense by our superior understanding and wisdom."

(Cut and paste error. My apologies to all.

114 posted on 08/09/2012 12:42:52 PM PDT by Natural Law (Jesus did not leave us a Bible, He left us a Church.)
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To: Natural Law

Natural Law:

First of all, what is this in your response, “Catholics voted for abortion in 2008, as they normally do.”? And what does it have to do with me? I never said such a thing ... ever.

Second, in regard to “the actual meaning of ‘LOGOS’”, I have no idea what you are intending to say or criticize. And, by the way, this part is a cheap shot: “talisman-like powers.”

Let me use, again, a christological analogy. When God promised fallen mankind a Savior, who would Himself be God and Man in one person, did this not mean that the Savior, in order to be fully man would have to be born at a particular time, in a particular place, of a particular race who spoke a particular language or languages and had a particular culture, to a particular mother and be of a particular sex, either male or female? Yes or no? And are these particulars not the very substance of the Christian Church’s confession, confidence, and hope?

Similarly, if God spoke to man through the prophets and caused them to render such in writing - or will you argue that He did not do so? - did each not have to render such in a particular language? Yes or no?

Peace be with you as well.


115 posted on 08/09/2012 12:53:42 PM PDT by Belteshazzar (We are not justified by our works but by faith - De Jacob et vita beata 2 +Ambrose of Milan)
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