[Cronos]

Sorry, but Matthew 1:25 uses "until" is the same as 2 Samuel 6:23 "And Michal ... had no child until the day of her death" -- which does not mean she had children after she died

In the same sense Mary and Joseph who were already 'espoused' according to luke 1:27 which is why he wanted to "divorce her quietly" -- there would be no need to do that if he was not already married to her.

[CommerceComet]

Sorry but I'll stick with the plain meaning of the text rather than some explanation as to why the passage doesn't really say what it says.

Okay, I'll agree that Jesus followed the Law. In His role as the true Passover Lamb, He had to be without flaw with respect to God's Law. Where does Scripture say or imply that Jesus was obligated to follow cultural rules? Man-made cultural rules and God's Law are not always the same thing as Jesus Himself pointed out in Matthew 15 where He condemned those who declared property as a gift to God (a cultural practice) in order to avoid their obligation to honor their parents (God's Commandment).