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Here the word “God” derived from the Greek term “Theos” had broader usage than what is customary today, and was used to describe a range of authorities, and was not limited to a personal name for the supreme Deity. Note the term was used to describe the Roman Governer in Acts 12:22, and even Satin in 2 Corinthians. 4:4, and Moses in Exodus 7:1. At the time “God” was also a commonly used term for authority.

That is a nice internet site answer but replacing words in the lexicon with others is a sure fine sign of a cult trying to justify a spurious claim or trying to deflect.

Thomas said "theos" which is God everywhere else meaning God. In John 1 "theos" is God. Everywhere in John's Gospel "theos" is God. There is no precedence to change the meaning of "theos" to other than God in this passage.

Unless it is your position that Thomas is stating Jesus is a demigod. Is that your position? Because that is the only explanation for another use of "theos" within the context.

In Acts 12:22 the context is Herod had a voice as a "god." So not a very good retort to an emphatic "My Lord AND my God!" I mean for Thomas there was only One God, or perhaps I missed the portions of the NT where they discuss a pantheon of sorts.

You may want to go to the site where you dug up this 'answer' and tell them to keep trying. Changing meanings using Jedi mind tricks of the lexicon is unconvincing and quite a signal there is no response to Thomas saying "My Lord and my God." The disciples used several other honorifics when addressing Jesus, and "theos" in the manner of other than God is never used. As with Peter's confession in Matthew 16, we see here in John 20 a disciple reveals a Truth about the Son of God is Truly God and truly man.