I was pinged back into this thread today and reread you post... when you quote Acts 3:22 and write [Hebrew word] Elokim.... is that from the original Greek which distinguishes between the Hebrew words ‘YKVK’ and ‘Elokim?”
(note, and point to jonrick46, we use G-d and substitute a ‘h’ for a ‘k’ to avoid writing even a transliteration for G-d’s name(s.) The reason is that it’s the Jewish application of the commandment not to take His name in vain.
As it is for the Jew, so it is for the Gentile, not the other way around as is falsely taught by Roman Christendom. They refuse to hear Paul when he wrote, what advantage then does the Jew have? Much, because to Judah was entrusted the Torah of YHWH. Y’shua taught obedience to the Torah and when He returns, Judah who has clung to Torah will have the veil lifted. Sadly for the followers of Roman Christendom, there is going to be a lot of weeping and gnashing of teeth when they realize that they should have taken the teachings of Y’shua literally and not listened to and followed the whitewashed and twisted teachings of the Torahless preachers and prophets. There is also going to be a lot of hearts fainting when they find themselves in the midst of the wrath of Elohim because they did not have it in their heart to obey Him, to love Him as He desires to be loved.
Shalom