He did not establish new doctrine belief in Mary - that doctrine was held from I believe the first council in 325 AD.
He just made it dogma so if you didn’t accept it you were excommunicated.
Big difference he invented nothing, just reinforced it.
AMDG
No...he spoke ex cathedra on this. As I understand it this did more than reinforce it....it made it a belief of the Catholic church....only one of two times the pope has spoken ex cathedra based on catholic sources.
So the infallibility of the Pope wasn't formalized until 1870??
The infallibility of the pope was formally defined in 1870, although the tradition behind this view goes back much further. In the conclusion of the fourth chapter of its Dogmatic Constitution on the Church Pastor aeternus, the First Vatican Council declared the following, with bishops Aloisio Riccio and Edward Fitzgerald dissenting:[65]
We teach and define that it is a dogma Divinely revealed that the Roman pontiff when he speaks ex cathedra, that is when in discharge of the office of pastor and doctor of all Christians, by virtue of his supreme Apostolic authority, he defines a doctrine regarding faith or morals to be held by the universal Church, by the Divine assistance promised to him in Blessed Peter, is possessed of that infallibility with which the Divine Redeemer willed that his Church should be endowed in defining doctrine regarding faith or morals, and that therefore such definitions of the Roman pontiff are of themselves and not from the consent of the Church irreformable.
So then, should anyone, which God forbid, have the temerity to reject this definition of ours: let him be anathema. (see Denziger §1839).
— Vatican Council, Sess. IV , Const. de Ecclesiâ Christi, Chapter iv
6.Ineffabilis Deus, Pope Pius IX, 1854, defining the Immaculate Conception;
7.Munificentissimus Deus, Pope Pius XII, 1950, defining the Assumption of Mary.
so we wait until 1870 to get the official word that what the pope says ex catheda is official? kinda late in the game isn't it for this?
Seems to me this undermines the whole claim to authority being given to Peter. that would imply what he said goes. why wait until 1870 to declare this if it was already a truth?
regarding the assumption of Mary
Before declaring the Assumption a dogma in Munificentissimus Deus in 1950, in the encyclical Deiparae Virginis Mariae "" (1946) Pope Pius XII obtained the opinion of Catholic bishops, and based on their overwhelming support (1210 among the 1232 bishops)proceeded with the dogmatic definition.
so the pope did an opinion poll on this????
were the 22 who did not give their support considered heathen protestants????
this is really eye-opening to me....theology by opinion poll.
Since the 1870 solemn declaration of Papal Infallibility by Vatican I in 1870, this declaration by Pius XII has been the only ex cathedra use of Papal Infallibility.
While Pope Pius XII deliberately left open the question of whether Mary died before her Assumption, the more common teaching of the early Fathers is that she did.
so the pope doesn't know the answer???? I thought when he spoke "ex cathedra" as in this case, he was speaking on behalf of Christ.
wouldn't this have been revealed so we would know for sure??
I tell you...the more I study the Catholicism I see a lot of its claims (the papacy, assumption of Mary, the Immaculate Conception, etc) built upon a lot of what ifs, suppositions, and pulling scripture out of its context to justify positions that are at best questionable from a Biblical perspective.
No...he spoke ex cathedra on this. As I understand it this did more than reinforce it....it made it a belief of the Catholic church....only one of two times the pope has spoken ex cathedra based on catholic sources.
So the infallibility of the Pope wasn't formalized until 1870??
The infallibility of the pope was formally defined in 1870, although the tradition behind this view goes back much further. In the conclusion of the fourth chapter of its Dogmatic Constitution on the Church Pastor aeternus, the First Vatican Council declared the following, with bishops Aloisio Riccio and Edward Fitzgerald dissenting:[65]
We teach and define that it is a dogma Divinely revealed that the Roman pontiff when he speaks ex cathedra, that is when in discharge of the office of pastor and doctor of all Christians, by virtue of his supreme Apostolic authority, he defines a doctrine regarding faith or morals to be held by the universal Church, by the Divine assistance promised to him in Blessed Peter, is possessed of that infallibility with which the Divine Redeemer willed that his Church should be endowed in defining doctrine regarding faith or morals, and that therefore such definitions of the Roman pontiff are of themselves and not from the consent of the Church irreformable.
So then, should anyone, which God forbid, have the temerity to reject this definition of ours: let him be anathema. (see Denziger §1839).
— Vatican Council, Sess. IV , Const. de Ecclesiâ Christi, Chapter iv
6.Ineffabilis Deus, Pope Pius IX, 1854, defining the Immaculate Conception;
7.Munificentissimus Deus, Pope Pius XII, 1950, defining the Assumption of Mary.
so we wait until 1870 to get the official word that what the pope says ex catheda is official? kinda late in the game isn't it for this?
Seems to me this undermines the whole claim to authority being given to Peter. that would imply what he said goes. why wait until 1870 to declare this if it was already a truth?
regarding the assumption of Mary
Before declaring the Assumption a dogma in Munificentissimus Deus in 1950, in the encyclical Deiparae Virginis Mariae "" (1946) Pope Pius XII obtained the opinion of Catholic bishops, and based on their overwhelming support (1210 among the 1232 bishops)proceeded with the dogmatic definition.
so the pope did an opinion poll on this????
were the 22 who did not give their support considered heathen protestants????
this is really eye-opening to me....theology by opinion poll.
Since the 1870 solemn declaration of Papal Infallibility by Vatican I in 1870, this declaration by Pius XII has been the only ex cathedra use of Papal Infallibility.
While Pope Pius XII deliberately left open the question of whether Mary died before her Assumption, the more common teaching of the early Fathers is that she did.
so the pope doesn't know the answer???? I thought when he spoke "ex cathedra" as in this case, he was speaking on behalf of Christ.
wouldn't this have been revealed so we would know for sure??
I tell you...the more I study the Catholicism I see a lot of its claims (the papacy, assumption of Mary, the Immaculate Conception, etc) built upon a lot of what ifs, suppositions, and pulling scripture out of its context to justify positions that are at best questionable from a Biblical perspective.