2 Samuel 6:23- and she bore no children until the day she died...”. Did she have children after she died? The fact is, the ide that Jesus had siblings other than cousins is a relatively new concept...
Uh, dude? That’s Michal, King David’s daughter. He was ticked at her and so she had no children by him. We’re talking about Mary. Wow, dude.
Whoops, David’s wife, not daughter. It’s contagious
This would be a great explanation if Matthew 1 said "and she remained a virgin until her death." But it does not say this and death is not in the equation. Matthew 1 says "And he knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son." Now if the text said "until her death" then we are talking about something different. But we are not. We are specifically addressing 'until' 'till' in context of the birth of Jesus Christ.
Second point, the DRA (Roman Catholic) has "unto" in the 2 Sam. 6:23 verse and not 'until'. I know being picky but within in the context of not bearing children unto death is a striking difference from "and knew her not till she brought forth her first born son."
The attempt of wresting out of context verses to apply or cast doubt on what is clearly communicated is noted. Just another RC piecemeal prevarication.
Interesting thought just occurred to me (something to research): perhaps Michal did have a child. Perhaps she died in childbirth, thus she could have bore a child on the day she died...
Just a random thought...