Here is my take on the Wikipedia article under the heading of clerical celibacy:
“The tenth century is claimed to be the high point of clerical marriage in the Latin communion (Catholic Church). Most rural priests were married and many urban clergy and bishops had wives and children.”
Then, in the Sixteenth Century:
“The Reformers made the abolition of clerical continence and celibacy a key element of their reform. The denounced it as opposed to the New Testament recommendation that a cleric should be the husband of one wife (1 Timothy 3:2).”
As to why the policy was implemented:
“...a large number of the clergy, not only priests but bishops, openly took wives and begot children to whom they transmitted their benefices”
Clearly the Church’s policy of mandatory clerical celibacy conflicts with the New and Old Testaments which permitted priests and bishops to be married. And clearly the policy of clerical celibacy was not institutionalized until much later in Church history.
You seem to be suggesting that clerical celibacy sprung from out of nowhere due to benefice abuses but the wikipedia article you referred me to indicates a much earlier tradition and even goes so far as to cite the "husband of one wife" line from Sacred Scripture as code for "not having sex". I didn't come up with that, it's in the article, as crazy as it seems.
The bulk of the evidence in the wiki article itself and the other resources I linked to in an earlier post show celibacy for the higher clergy (deacons, priests, bishops) to be of at least great antiquity if not Apostolic in origin. I don't see how, when all the evidence is considered that can be rejected.