[ealgeone]

So to the question: why, reasonably, would Paul pass up words used elsewhere in the NT and common in the Greek "Pleres charitos" and coin an entirely new, unheard-of term (or, better, quote the Angel Gabriel saying something nobody ever said before), "Kecharitomene"? You don't wonder about that? You don't think it's worth looking into?

I don't disagree with examining words in the NT. We all need to do better in learing the Greek behind our English bibles.

Bear in mind there are a lot of one or two use words in the NT. Some more interesting than others from a theological perspective. However, context will help us understand the intent behind the writings.

However, the term Luke has used here doesn't suggest Mary is sinless or remained sinless. I don't find that even hinted at in Strong's or Word-Helps.

That's why I said it was conjecture.

The rest of the passage explains what is about to happen to Mary and her response to the message from Gabriel.

Let context be the key to interpretation.

As I noted earlier, if Mary were sinless, it would contradict Romans 3:23 and the teaching that we are all sinners in needs of salavation. The Bible doesn't contradict itself.

[ex-snook]

Mary was the Ark of the Covenant chosen by God to carry His Son. How can anyone think she was less than perfect in all respects.

[Mrs. Don-o]

I didn't say Mary wasn't in need of salvation. She herself says God is her savior.

You say the Bible doesn't contradict itself: OK, but it does present paradoxes for interpretation. Every one who reads the Bible has seen this:

PS 145:9 The LORD is good to all: and his tender mercies are over all his works.
-vs-
JER 13:14 And I will dash them one against another, even the fathers and the sons together, saith the LORD: I will not pity, nor spare, nor have mercy, but destroy them.

EXO 15:3 The LORD is a man of war: the LORD is his name.
-vs-
ROM 15:33 Now the God of peace be with you all.

Who is Josephs father??

MAT 1:16 And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary,
-vs-
LUK 3:23 Joseph, which was the son of Heli.

JOH 10:30 I and my Father are one.
-vs-
JOH 14:28 I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.

ISA 14:21 Prepare to slaughter the children for the iniquity of their fathers
-vs-
DEU 24:16 The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers.

EX. 33:11"And the Lord spake to Moses face to face, as a man speaketh to his friend."
-vs-
JN 1:18"No man hath seen God at any time."

GEN 32:30"For I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved."
<-vs-
EX. 33:20 "And he said, Thou canst not see my face; for there shall no man see me and live."

GEN 22:1 "And it came to pass after these things, that God did tempt Abraham."
-vs-.
JAS 1:13"Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God; for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man."

I could go on, but it's just tiresome. These verses don't give me a problem, but honestly, it can't be said that these contradictions are self-explanatory.

Relevant to our present discussion is that everyone sins and thus everyone has to die; but Elijah goes up to heaven in a fiery chariot without dying.

2KI 2:11"And Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven."
-vs-
JOH 3:13"No man hath ascended up to heaven but he that came down from heaven, ... the Son of Man."

Don't get me wrong, I am not arguing in the manner of a smart-aleck atheist who reads Scripture without real study, and in a superficial way; nor in the manner of a ex-fundamentalist Scripture scholar like Bart Ehrman, who in a surfeit of scholarship, was driven right out of the faith by textual variants and scribal errors.

So, back to our topic. Every verse that says "For there is not a just (or righteous) man upon earth," can be matched by a verse that explicitly says such-and-such is just (or righteous) ---for instance Noah, Joseph, etc.

The text that says "All sin" can be matched by a verse that says Mary is full of grace (FULL of grace excludes sin.) . She was an exception. Predestined to impart a perfect human nature to Jesus (otherwise He would have received a damaged nature like everybody else, since He is a descasndant of Adam and Eve.) That's why the unique, exceptional sinlessness of Mary is expressed by the unique, exceptional word "Kecharitomene."

You need the whole Bible as context. Enjoy (LINK)