Elsie:
Bravo! and please RM don’t delete this post. I appreciate the passion of the response as My Sicilian temper at times has thought about saying the same. For the record, Catholic Interpretation of Scripture is comfortable with the 4-sense of Scripture that was used by the Fathers, so yes, a passage can have interpretations using 1, 2, 3 or all 4 of the senses of Scripture. What Rome defines is that MT 16:16-18 refers to Peter [whether it is his confession or due to his confession of faith or person] and that Peter was the Chief of the Apostles and First Among them thus he and via Apostolic Succession, has a Primacy that extends to both the Church of Rome and its Bishop.
Now for all the pissing matched that go on here, has anyone among you Protestants actually read what Vatican I actually said. Well, I have linked it for you. If you read the Definition of Papal Infallibility, it does clearly link Peter’s Confession to the idea of Primacy and Infallibility
We teach and declare that,according to the gospel evidence,
a primacy of jurisdiction over the whole church of God
was immediately and directly
promised to the blessed apostle Peter and
conferred on him by Christ the lord.
[PROMISED]
It was to Simon alone,
to whom he had already said
You shall be called Cephas [42] ,
that the Lord,
after his confession, You are the Christ, the son of the living God,spoke these words:
Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jona. For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven.
And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates of the underworld shall not prevail against it. I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven [43] .
http://www.papalencyclicals.net/Councils/ecum20.htm#
Look!
Over THERE!
Golly; THAT request fell on deaf ears!
Golly; THAT request fell on deaf ears!
For the record, Catholic Interpretation of Scripture is comfortable with the 4-sense of Scripture that was used by the Fathers, so yes, a passage can have interpretations using 1, 2, 3 or all 4 of the senses of Scripture.
But, what it CAN'T 'have' is any 'interpretation' by those DAMNED Prots!