The bible DOES illustrate that ALL were being spoken to at the start; impulsive Peter jumps out of his virtual school desk chair, saying "Me, ME, ME!!!" and gives an answer; do you not agree?
I'm glad you've noted about the ADDING WORDS TO implication.
This is PRECISELY what the RCC does in SO many of it's assertions.
Please, if you will, hold IT to the same standards as are tried to be applied to Protestantism?
If that request is too much; can we be allowed to use the same rules that Rome does?
Yes I agree that only Peter answered, but there is no way to know without ‘adding words’ when or if Christ went from addressing Peter exclusively to going back to addressing the entire group. Either interpretation of that last sentence fits. In fact, although I believe that your interpretation is not unreasonable, I believe that since there was no clear change from single to group address, as Jesus had done when he switched to Peter exclusively, it is more likely that he was still addressing Peter.
I thought that Protestants didn’t believe in ‘adding words’. I thought this was the basis of the argument. I don’t think Catholics have a problem with Protestants ‘adding words’ to form their interpretations, as long as those ‘additions’ are based on context and other biblical references. Sometimes, (as above) it is necessary to clarify points.
I think Jesus was talking to Peter, you think he was talking to the group. I don’t have a problem with that, but one of us has to be wrong, and your replies haven’t convinced me that I should change what I believe. I also understand that what I have said has not been sufficient to change what you believe. But I recognize that your interpretation is possible and well thought out, even if I don’t believe it is correct. Is not my interpretation the same?
O2