I pose the same question to the Catholic church.
That’s not an answer. I’m not talking about the Catholic church here. I’m talking about you and me. In this very specific case we disagree on whether the word ‘you’ is singular or plural. We have each given reasons to support our interpretations, and there is still no clear answer. Why should I believe that you are correct in this specific instance? Are you simply dismissing my interpretation because it is in agreement with the Catholic church? How can you prove that Jesus is speaking to the group and not just to Peter when that information is not included in the scripture?
O2