Because the annulment process provides an objective judgment.
I discern and understand what you say, Father.
If a Catholic dines with Masons, and comports socially with Odd Fellows, and goes fishing camping and hunting with both sorts, carrying the appearance of impropriety but not ever engaging to initiatory conjugation with them, does then a Catholic require the script of a Bishop to declare an objective lack of disloyalty?
I know, it sounds like a devil’s question, Father. But I am a lawyer, not a. . . (memento Domine, familulorem, famulrarumque tutarum et omnium circumstantium. . . ).
Jesus offered the water of life to the Samaritan woman (and her “husband”) in John 4. I acknowledge that we now cannot call up Jesus on Skype to obtain a quick objective judgment.
To wit, Father: If the former “husband” from an obviously invalid saecular “marriage” is a remorseless killer, feared by all, and objective judgment and a Bishop’s signature on an annulment must be obtained to remove a legalistic impediment, and due process requires the consent of the of violent former “spouse,” could a Bishop perhaps grant a special dispensation? Perhaps only the Bishop of Rome?
Dominus vobiscum.