What part of the NT was changed?
It was renowned linguist, St. Jerome (347-420 AD), who translated the books of the Bible into a single language, Latin.
Actually the Vulgate is well known to have translation issues. Your own catholic encyclopedia acknowledges this.
Yep...put it in latin so the masses couldn't read it for themselves.
“Yep...put it in Latin so the masses couldn’t read it for themselves.”
that is so pathetic can’t you be more creative?
In the period immediately following the translation of the bible into the Latin Vulgate much less than 10% of the population was literate.
If they were literate there were no bibles in print.
EACH BIBLE WAS HAND COPIED BY CATHOLIC MONKS AND DISTRIBUTED TO CATHOLICS CHURCHES WHERE IT WAS READ EACH SUNDAY AT MASS
every body finally got there chance when the good protestants convinced the good Gutenburg to print his bible,
except for the fact that Gutenburg was a Catholic.
And prior to Gutenburg there were at least ten versions of the Vulgate in print in limited in Germany.
The only way your bible made it through the Dark Ages was that Catholics copied and preserved it.
You are entitled to your own opinions - not your own facts.
For the Greater Glory of God
The Book of James was altered. But isn’t it enough that Luther would remove books entirely so others couldn’t read them? Besides, how many people in 420 until Gutenberg could actually read and write?
Latin was the lingua franca of Jerome’s time, and continues to be the language of law and medicine. Latin is still used today to describe many religious tenets, as are words that are specifically Greek.
English is wholly lacking, as it is a mongrel language, full of contradiction, idiom, and is imprecise.
A bible in Latin provided access to the entire world, the entire canon, in one language, instead of requiring people to learn many, and in the future, unspoken languages.
It wasn’t translated to deny anyone, rather to enable everyone of the time.