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To: CynicalBear

again weak

“brought forth her firstborn son”

“her firstborn son” is a title conveying inheritance and does not indicate there was a “second born son”.

whew


386 posted on 12/15/2014 7:54:21 AM PST by LurkingSince'98 (Ad Majoram Dei Gloriam = FOR THE GREATER GLORY OF GOD)
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To: LurkingSince'98
again weak “brought forth her firstborn son” “her firstborn son” is a title conveying inheritance and does not indicate there was a “second born son”.

if you check out the greek words used for son in this passage and then for son in John 3:16 you will see the difference.

don't have time to post it right now, but will later.

436 posted on 12/15/2014 9:24:41 AM PST by ealgeone
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To: LurkingSince'98
“her firstborn son” is a title conveying inheritance and does not indicate there was a “second born son”.

whew

Whew indeed!

Matthew 1:25
But he did not consummate their marriage until she gave birth to a son.


This 'indicates' that they DID get it on AFTER the FIRST BORN SON appeared.

Whew!

492 posted on 12/15/2014 11:57:12 AM PST by Elsie ( Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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