A good question. The answer is "no". Mary’s preservation from original sin was accomplished in anticipation of her Son’s redemptive work. Therefore, Jesus is also Mary’s Savior. Because of what he would do on the cross, this grace was given to her early. The gracious character of this blessing is also the reason that Anne and Joachim did not need to have it: It was a grace God could give to anyone at any time. He chose to give it to Mary to make her a fitting mother for his Son.
This grace was not given to Anne and Joachim because it was not fitting for them to have the same precise graces as Christ’s own mother, who bore him in her womb. No doubt they were very blessed in many ways, but not as blessed as their daughter.
What I puzzle over is: Yashua was born the only sinless person on earth to assume all the sins of mankind. He was the only person who had the Holy Spirit within therefor Mary didn’t have the Holy Spirit. The Bible states: For all have sinned and come short of the glory of God - I don’t want to be contentious but just trying to resolve conflicts.
And why was it necessary?
The gracious character of this blessing is also the reason that Anne and Joachim did not need to have it: It was a grace God could give to anyone at any time.
If God could do it for Mary, born of sinful parents, then He could have done it for Jesus, born of a sinful mother.
Why not? Sinless is sinless. If Mary was necessarily sinless to bear the sinless Christ, then why was it not necessary for Mary's parents to be sinless to be a fitting vessel to bear the (allegedly) sinless Mary?
Bull!
How fanciful!