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To: Jacob Kell
the New Testament used the masculine Greek word “Petros”, and when He said “upon this rock”, He used the feminine version “Petra”.

Jesus spoke Aramaic. Not Greek. Greek has masculine and feminine nouns. In Aramaic, there would be no confusion of gender.

59 posted on 02/12/2015 3:34:35 PM PST by FatherofFive (Islam is evil and must be eradicated)
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To: FatherofFive

“Jesus spoke Aramaic. Not Greek.”


“After Alexander, Palestine was ruled by the Ptolemies and the Seleucids for almost two hundred years. Jewish culture was heavily influenced by Hellenistic culture, and Koine Greek was used not only for international communication, but also as the first language of many Jews.”

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_the_New_Testament#Languages_used_in_ancient_Palestine

However, I think we can safely assume that the Son of God could speak whatever language He wished to speak, just as He knew Scripture backwards and forwards without any formal training, and knew the nature of life and mankind better than any trained philosopher of His day.


108 posted on 02/12/2015 5:05:39 PM PST by Boogieman
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To: FatherofFive; Jacob Kell
Jesus spoke Aramaic. Not Greek.

Prove it.

Greek has masculine and feminine nouns. In Aramaic, there would be no confusion of gender.

The NT was God breathed, Holy Spirit inspired in Greek so whether Jesus spoke Aramaic or not is irrelevant.

You can't base an argument on what someone might have said if they had been speaking another language as it is pure speculation.

117 posted on 02/12/2015 5:15:41 PM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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