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Well, this has never worked before but I’ll give it a try anyway.

To the GREEK, that the NT was written in.

Flesh

Word for *flesh* in: John 6:51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56

http://bible.cc/john/6-51.htm

John 6:63

http://biblos.com/john/6-63.htm

The word for *flesh* is the same in BOTH verses.

http://biblesuite.com/greek/4561.htm

sarx: flesh

Short Definition: flesh, body

Definition: flesh, body, human nature, materiality; kindred.

Well, this has never worked before but I’ll give it a try anyway.

Einstein said the definition of insanity is doing the same thing over and over and expecting a different result.

The reason it never worked is because it is dead wrong.

Here is the truth:

And Paul clarifies that quite nicely in Galatians.

Gal 5:16 But I say, walk by the Spirit, and ye shall not fulfil the lust of the flesh.

Gal 5:17 For the flesh lusteth against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh; for these are contrary the one to the other; that ye may not do the things that ye would.

Gal 5:18 But if ye are led by the Spirit, ye are not under the law.

Gal 5:19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these: fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,

Gal 5:20 idolatry, sorcery, enmities, strife, jealousies, wraths, factions, divisions, parties,

Gal 5:21 envyings, drunkenness, revellings, and such like; of which I forewarn you, even as I did forewarn you, that they who practise such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.

Gal 5:22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, kindness, goodness, faithfulness,

Gal 5:23 meekness, self-control; against such there is no law.

Gal 5:24 And they that are of Christ Jesus have crucified the flesh with the passions and the lusts thereof.

Well, this has never worked before but I’ll give it a try anyway.

I hope no one is jumping to the conclusion that "it isn't working, because the opponents are too dense/stupid/blind/etc., or any other self-serving, arrogant assumption...

To the GREEK, that the NT was written in.

Indeed, it was! Full points! :)

The word for *flesh* is the same in BOTH verses.

All right... now, let's do a logical exercise. State your case in terms of a logical deduction/syllogism, so that I'm clear what you think this proves. In other words, tell me--step by step, filling in all necessary "suppressed premises"--what your starting assumptions are, and what you think the logical conclusion is.

Can you do that, for me?