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G_P_H...A better question: Which Catholics interpret the Bible infallibly? The answer to both of those questions is NO ONE ..

You've just admitted that Protestants can't interpret Scripture infallibly.

You also claim that the Catholic Church can't, either.

But WE believe that the Catholic Church is the Church that Christ founded AND that it can teach infallibly.

"...which is the church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of truth." --St. Paul
"If he won't listen to the church, treat him as a pagan or tax collector." --Jesus

The Church has the power to "bind and loose." What does this phrase mean?

"Binding and loosing is an originally Jewish phrase which appears in the New Testament, as well as in the Targum. In usage to bind and to loose mean simply to forbid by an indisputable authority, and to permit by an indisputable authority." --Wikipedia
"Under Queen Alexandra, the Pharisees, says Josephus ("B J." i, 5, § 2), "became the administrators of all public affairs so as to be empowered to banish and readmit whom they pleased, as well as to loose and to bind." --Jewish Encyclopedia

Jesus affirms the teaching authority of the Pharisees (their power to "bind and loose."

“The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat. 3 Therefore whatever they tell you to observe,[a] that observe and do, but do not do according to their works; for they say, and do not do."

Jesus, to Peter:

"And I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven.”

Jesus to the Apostles:

Assuredly, I say to you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven.

The Catholic Church can trace Her origin to Apostolic times. Lutheranism can be traced back to Luther. His church has no divine teaching authority.

If he won't listen to the church, treat him as a pagan or tax collector." --Jesus

Which of course is wretched out of context. Anyone who believes this speaks about Rome's authority should fear for their eternal soul.

The Catholic Church can trace Her origin to Apostolic times. Lutheranism can be traced back to Luther. His church has no divine teaching authority.

Mighty bold talk for a fella who has hitched his wagon to the RCC.

So MANY of it's 'churches' seen in the bible were teaching massive error.

Tell us ignorant Prots: Just HOW does that happen?

The Catholic Church can trace Her origin to Apostolic times. Lutheranism can be traced back to Luther. His church has no divine teaching authority.

1) The NT church was not theRoman Catholic church ... It was not the church of the pope, or mary..it had no priesthood, no mass, no 7 sacraments, no holy water, no confessional ...It was more like my church than yours

2)There is no "apostolic succession" taught in the scripture Those are all RC fairy tales used to hook people into their church ...nothing more..

But WE believe that the Catholic Church is the Church that Christ founded AND that it can teach infallibly.

Because Rome says she is, which is a false belief that is no substitute for that which refutes it.

"...which is the church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of truth." --St. Paul

So where is this text infallibly interpreted to mean Rome possesses perpetual ensured magisterial infallibility? Or even as requiring assent as meaning what you invoke it for?

And if it is not, then how does 8 words in Greek, (church living God pillar and ground the truth), one of which only occurs here, with both pillar and ground denoting support, translate into the church being the supreme infallible authority on Truth?

"Binding and loosing is an originally Jewish phrase which appears in the New Testament, as well as in the Targum. In usage to bind and to loose mean simply to forbid by an indisputable authority, and to permit by an indisputable authority." --Wikipedia

“The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat. 3 Therefore whatever they tell you to observe,[a] that observe and do,

Then how could souls be correct if they did not submit to the indisputable OT authority to whom this applied to under the OT?

Jesus, to Peter: "And I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven.”

Why does this authority necessitate perpetual ensured magisterial infallibility, whenever it speaks according to Rome's formula, which excludes the possibility of valid dissent from it?

Where is this power spiritually restricted to said magisterium?

The Catholic Church can trace Her origin to Apostolic times. Lutheranism can be traced back to Luther. His church has no divine teaching authority.

To clarify then, your argument is that an assuredly (if conditionally) infallible magisterium is essential for determination and assurance of Truth (including writings and men being of God) and to fulfill promises of Divine presence, providence of Truth, and preservation of faith, and authority. (Jn. 14:16,26; 15:26; 16:13; Mt. 16:18; Lk. 10:16)

And that being the historical instruments and stewards of Divine revelation (oral and written) means that such is that assuredly infallible magisterium. Thus any who knowingly dissent from the latter must be in rebellion to God?