John 6:38 is the verse you should be looking at.
Why is it Jesus’s will to do the will of the Father?
What will are we talking about?
Where does it come from?
If Jesus has a fully human nature, where did he get it?
If Mary had a fallen human nature, how could she give complete assent to the Incarnation?
If Mary did not give complete assent to the Incarnation, is God a rapist?
If Mary did not give complete assent to the Incarnation, is Jesus really one of us?
If Jesus received a tainted human nature from his mother, how could he be wholly conformed to the will of his Father?
There is no atonement without the Immaculate Conception.
Non-biblical assertion on your part.
What is "complete assent"? What does that even mean...
Luke 1:38a And Mary said, “Behold, I am the servant of the Lord; let it be to me according to your word.”
If Mary did not give complete assent to the Incarnation, is God a rapist?
This is the wackiest thing I've ever heard. I know that Catholics assert that scripture should not be interpreted by laymen, but come on! How is Mary's statement to be understood except as complete assent?
If Jesus received a tainted human nature from his mother, how could he be wholly conformed to the will of his Father?
What? Why would Jesus receive a tainted human nature from Mary? By the same reasoning, Mary would have received a tainted human nature from her mother. Either Jesus is a special case, or it's turtles all the way down.
Besides, if Mary didn't have a tainted human nature, is she really one of us?
There is no atonement without the Immaculate Conception.
Worst reasoning ever!