I already explained this. The fact that it allows non-Catholics to receive communion without conversion...something the Church never allowed previously. If you think that’s okay then I guess it makes sense for you to refer to it when discussing other matters. Personally, I don’t trust it and will stick with what the good Cardinal said at Vatican I.
I think we’re done here.
You’re going backward from a supposed result to cause. You haven’t explained what it is in post-VII Canon Law that makes it invald. What is the principle that makes Canon Law invalid?