Here again you are in error. You are forced once again to twist the clear meaning of the text to conform to pre-trib Dispensationalism.
This is what the text is saying: Jesus "answered specifically regarding the END of the Age." This much you got correct. But here comes your subtle twist: i.e., Jesus actually meant "the end of the Great Tribulation."
False! If Jesus meant to be speaking of "the end of the Tribulation" he would have specified exactly that. But he did not. He was replying to a question about "THE END OF THE AGE."
Now as a pre-trib Dispensationalist you are doubtlessly familiar with the meaning of the term "Age". This would be (according to Dispensationalism) the Church Age.
Jesus was speaking about the eschatological events that would occur in the leading up to the end of the Church Age. There is NO justification for twisting this to mean he was instead only referring to the last part of some 7 year tribulation period!
Thus, once again, Jesus' teaching is clear: His coming for the saints will occur after the events of the period of tribulation, when He will "gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other."
The teaching of Jesus on His coming for His saints, together with that of the Apostle Paul, are clear.
Who asked Jesus about the Temple they saw glimmering in the evening sunlight, as they walked from the Temple Mount down the path and up onto the mount of Olives? What was the question asked of Jesus that launched Him into the Olivet Discourse ... and how does that Discourse differ from the Temple Discourse found in Luke’s Gospel which cause the Disciple to ask specifically about the end of the Age?
Have nice day