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To: Mrs. Don-o; MHGinTN; metmom
Supposed syllogism: Jesus is God.
Mary is the mother of Jesus.
Therefore Mary is the Mother of God.

Oh, oh. You have mixed dogs and geese to get a barking quackery. Her is the correct approach:

Jesus is the God-man.
Mary is the host mother of the man part of the God-man.
The God part of the God-man Jesus pre-existed Mary.
Mary pre-existed the man-part of Jesus.
Therefore, Mary is the surrogate mother of the man part of the God-man Jesus but not the mother of the God part of the God-man Jesus.
Mary is therefore not the mother of The Pre-existing God.

Quod erat demonstrandum.

383 posted on 06/22/2016 12:35:41 AM PDT by imardmd1 (The LORD says: "I have created the smith that bloweth the coals in the fire" Is. 54:16)
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To: imardmd1; Mrs. Don-o; MHGinTN

THANK YOU!!!!!


389 posted on 06/22/2016 4:16:21 AM PDT by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: imardmd1; metmom; don-o

OH WOW! YOU ARE (very nearly) RIGHT!

"Mary is therefore not the mother source of The Pre-existing God."

Every word you wrote in the above line is true, if you substitute the word "source" for "mother."

Mary is not the SOURCE of the pre-existing God. That's for sure.

So read through your whole list and substitute the word "Source" for "Mother," sharpening up the distinction between "person" and "nature,"and you've got it!

She's the natural (not surrogate!) mother of the God-Man precisely because birth-giver conceives, gestates, and gives birth to a Person, not to a "part."

Because of the Incarnation, the eternally pre-existing GOD also had the experience of birth the experience of assuming a human nature and living as an embryo, living and growing inside of His mother, and being pushed out of the womb into the air-breathing world, having his umbilical cord cut, nursing on her mama-milk, being cuddled in her loving arms, etc.etc.

She was not his source. But she gave Him that experience, because He was a Person having an experience.

Otherwise you're denying that the divine and human natures of Christ are united in One Person, and you're instead saying they constitute two "persons," one of whom has experiences and one of whom does not. Do you see the problem here?

Because of the Incarnation, the one Person experienced what it is to be born; to grow; to live truly as a baby, a child, a man; to eat and sleep; to sweat and suffer; to die and be buried; to experience Resurrection and Ascension into heaven.

He who was, is, and always be in heaven, because He is omni-present.

This is not to say "God grew" or "God died," but it is to say He experienced all this ---the growth of the body, the dying of the body--- as one Person.

Jesus Christ, (the Word, the Second Person of the Trinity, the eternal, omnipotent, only-begotten Son who is limitless and is everywhere and knows everything) has two natures. But he *IS* only one Person. And it is the Person who chooses, desires, experiences, acts.

That is what is meant by the word "person."

Jesus, the God-Man, is one Person, He experienced everything we experience. It is written that He even experienced temptation, but without sin.

390 posted on 06/22/2016 5:01:14 AM PDT by Mrs. Don-o (The harmony between thought and reality is found in the grammar of the language. Ludwig Wittgenstein)
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To: imardmd1
Therefore, Mary is the surrogate mother of the man part of the God-man Jesus but not the mother of the God part of the God-man Jesus.

Slipping in a conclusion as a premise isn't normally allowed in logic. You've demonstrated nothing -- except perhaps that you deny that Christ had any human ancestors, that He is not of the seed of Abraham, the seed of Isaac, the seed of Jacob, and certainly not of the royal line of David, and not even Jewish, since Jewishness comes through the mother. Your "argument" seems to imply that He's not even human -- more a fabricated simulacrum cunningly devised to appear humanm.

412 posted on 06/22/2016 10:08:39 AM PDT by maryz
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