[boatbums]

>> “The same Jesus of the same gospel was offered freely to both Jew and Gentile alike, throughout the whole Bible” <<

This statement is essentially gibberish. “Jews” are followers of Phariseeism. Jews didn’t exist until the second temple period. Did you mean Israelites, or Hebrews?

What about the term "Mordecai the Jew" used in the OT book of Esther (see Esther 5:13; 8:7; 9:29; 10:3)? The Hebrew word used was "Yehudi" which means: Jewish (see http://biblehub.com/hebrew/3064.htm).

[editor-surveyor]

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Are you simply not aware that Esther was produced in the second temple period?

And the term “Jew” was only used in the English translations.
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[editor-surveyor]

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BTW, Yehudi does not mean “Jewish,” but of Yehuda’s tribe.

The two are not interchangeable,except to followers of the idiocy of Hal Lindsay.

Judaism is phariseeism, not a genetic label, but the name of a man made sect.