Let's get's down to the "brass tacks" (or is it "tax" I've never known), and reduce this to as many facts, and as little personal opinion as possible.
In John 1:42, Jesus Himself says that Simon will be called "Κηφᾶς" (which is "Cephas" when it's written in Greek). Κηφᾶς, no one can deny, means only "rock".
Later, in the same passage, the Holy Spirit inspired the author to interpret "Κηφᾶς" as "Πέτρος ".
The big whoop imardmd1 (and others on this thread I guess) are making here stems from the fact that "Πέτρος" can mean both "rock" AND "stone".
So, the reasoning goes (apparently), since "Πέτρος" can mean "stone", and in Matt 16, only "Πέτρος" is used (in reference to Simon), and since "we" (meaning Protestants/anti-Catholic Christians) know that Simon/Peter wasn't called "rock" in Matt 16 (because of the word games played there), then here, in John 1:42, the Holy Spirit must be saying that "Πέτρος " here must also mean "little stone" just as it does in Matt 16 (again according to the word games they play with "Πέτρος" vs "πέτρα" there).
I say "word games" because what's really going on in Matt 16:18 is that Jesus isn't playing a "word game" but rather a "play on words", playing off "πέτρα" by calling Simon "Πέτρος". Why did He do that there (in Matt 16:18)? Whole books have been written on that subject to be sure but probably the best answer is that since Simon was a man, He had to use "Πέτρος" rather than "πέτρα" because "πέτρα" is a feminine noun.
Regardless of all of the above, the entire confusion generated by focusing on Matt 16:18 alone, in isolation of the rest of Scripture ignores John 1:42 (and others) where Jesus Himself says that Simon will be called "Κηφᾶς", which means "rock" and only "rock", and even though the Holy Spirit goes on to clarify that "Κηφᾶς" means "Πέτρος" it's immaterial, because "Πέτρος" can also mean "rock" in addition to "stone". In other words, all that's happening in John 1:42 is that the Holy Spirit is clarifying that the Aramaic word used by Jesus is the same for both Greek words.
Otherwise, we have the Holy Spirit contradicting Jesus! Because again, the word used by Jesus (Κηφᾶς) can only mean "rock". So the Holy Spirit, when He inspired the author of John, must have meant that "Πέτρος" means "rock" as well, and not just a "stone" (or "little stone" or "pebble"as those mentioned above allege about Matt 16:18).
This is what ravenwolf has been saying all along, I believe. And I believe he/she is right.
John 1:42 provides the key to interpreting what "Πέτρος" truly means in Matt 16:18. Not some tortured, twisted word game the Protestants want, but simply that Jesus was respecting Simon's gender in Matt 16:18 by calling him "Πέτρος" there, but his true name is "Κηφᾶς", which is "rock".
It's inescapable, unless we wish to believe that the Holy Spirit contradicted Jesus in John 1:42.
Thanks for the explanation which is some what above
my head.
It is my simplicity which I have to depend on rather
than wisdom or education, one little simple scripture
can sometimes hold the key to understanding the intire
chapter.
I see you have the understanding to bring it all together.
Now you do...
Unknown.[1] Earliest attestation in 1863 US, specifically Texas.[1] A theory is that it comes from the brass tacks in the counter of a hardware store or draper’s shop used to measure cloth in precise units (rather than holding one end to the nose and stretching out the arm to approximately one yard). Another possibility is the 19th century American practice of using brass tacks to spell out the initials of the deceased on the top of their coffin.