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To: Havoc
Spoken pronunciation is meaningless in written translation. Latin was and is a phonetic language. The two Latin-based languages closest to the original (Italian and Spanish) are also phonetic languages, while Portugese and French are not. Pronunciation really isn't all that important in written documents (if you mispronounce something in Spanish, it can still be understood to the native speaker if you write it down). I'm a translator and I can tell you that the more you translate, the more susceptible to error a thing becomes. Especially when translating into English where there may be 10 different words for one word in the original. The translation then becomes somewhat subjective and based on the reader/hearer's loose definition of the word being translated. ex. bonita...can be pretty, lovely, beautiful, attractive. Similar words that have different meanings based on one's perception and opinion. In Spanish, bonita is bonita but in English it can mean more things depending on the translator's spin. Even in English, people have different ways of pronouncing English words. A Brit sounds different from an American, an Australian and an Irishman. Heck, a person from Brooklyn prounounces things differently from a person in Dallas, but they'll write it out the same.
2,115 posted on 04/08/2002 5:19:11 PM PDT by constitutiongirl
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To: constitutiongirl
Spoken pronunciation is meaningless in written translation. Latin was and is a phonetic language. The two Latin-based languages closest to the original (Italian and Spanish) are also phonetic languages, while Portugese and French are not. Pronunciation really isn't all that important in written documents (if you mispronounce something in Spanish, it can still be understood to the native speaker if you write it down). I'm a translator and I can tell you that the more you translate, the more susceptible to error a thing becomes.

Which is why its so nice that we have the original greek of the NT documents to read. The most precise language written. Nice too that we have originals of the OT texts bearing out the accuracy of that language so we can see that Exodus 20 really does say Don't bow and don't worship.

Especially when translating into English where there may be 10 different words for one word in the original. The translation then becomes somewhat subjective and based on the reader/hearer's loose definition of the word being translated. ex. bonita...can be pretty, lovely, beautiful, attractive.

Again, good thing we have the original Greek. Latin is phonetic but not as precise as the Greek. Greek, like English, has multiple understandings of the word Love, where English does not. We understand differentiations of types in English by assigning adjectives. Such things are built into the state of being words of Greek.

Similar words that have different meanings based on one's perception and opinion. In Spanish, bonita is bonita but in English it can mean more things depending on the translator's spin. Even in English, people have different ways of pronouncing English words. A Brit sounds different from an American, an Australian and an Irishman.

Again, why there is structure to language. Differentiations are derived by tense, gender and application and are at times modified by cultural norms (ie sayings like 'the cat's outta the bag).

Heck, a person from Brooklyn prounounces things differently from a person in Dallas, but they'll write it out the same.

This is just accent, and is common to other languages as well. It's just tougher to cut through when it's someone elses language you're dealing with.

Latin isn't a bad language, as I said before. But that doesn't mean that imposing all latin on everyone attending church is warranted. And that's what history says happened. And history backs it up. If it wasn't to keep the congregations dumb, then why such a fuss over getting it into all common tongues until it became a major devisive issue. If one were going to keep a single language, why latin instead of Greek, the language that the Apostles saw fit to have their works written in? Because, I would suggest, The people at the heart of these things could not read Greek or found it easier to read in their own tongue. The standard was set for themselves and obviously ignored for everyone else. I'm aware that in some areas, The scriptures were taught in Greek from the earliest times. And from a scholarship perspective, it's much more important if one is going to garner true meaning and if one is going to impose one language, that it should be the native languag e in which all the texts were written - what a notion, huh? Ideas and speculation; but, it would seem to fit the picture better than the handwringing.

2,129 posted on 04/08/2002 6:18:11 PM PDT by Havoc
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