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To: Jean Chauvin; fortheDeclaration
I ~clearly~ did not call Historical/Classical Pre-Millenialism "bonkers".

Then I have no problem. I've already said that amillenialism is a valid position. I think the premil position is more faithful to a literal rendering of scripture, an observation of the current state of earth, and to the beliefs of the early church.

By the way, do I understand correctly that amill in general thinks that Satan is now bound in the abyss?

35 posted on 08/28/2002 9:21:09 AM PDT by xzins
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To: xzins; CCWoody; Wrigley; RnMomof7; Matchett-PI; sola gracia
"Then I have no problem. I've already said that amillenialism is a valid position. I think the premil position is more faithful to a literal rendering of scripture, an observation of the current state of earth, and to the beliefs of the early church."

I, of course, completely disagree that the 'premil position is more faithful to a literal rendering of scripture'. I have repeatedly asked you for scripture that specifically describes a 1000 year earthly kingdom ~after~ the 2nd Coming of Christ and before He ushers in the New Heavens and the New Earth.

That you have failed quite miserably to provide a shred of evidence other than Justin Martyr, who is not a Canonnical writer, seems to be contrary to your statement that the pre-mil position is 'more faithful to a literal rendering of scripture'. Somehow, a specific description of a 1000 year earthly reign after the 2nd Coming of Christ and before He ushers in the New Heavens and the New Earth seems to be missed by ~all~ the NT writers.

"By the way, do I understand correctly that amill in general thinks that Satan is now bound in the abyss?"

As the words of Rev 20:3 declare, Satan was bound for a very specific reason: "that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled".

(The Rev 20 passage also explains that Satan will be released 'after the 1000 years are completed' and for a very specific reason -vs 7,8-...to deceive the nations once again. It's interesting how this fits in with the description of the Tribulation in Matthew 24 as well as the description of the coming Apostasy in 1 Timothy 4:1-5)

Yes, we do believe Satan was bound at Christ's first coming as the Gospels record Christ's words declaring such:

Matthew 12:29
Or else how can one enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he first bind the strong man? and then he will spoil his house.

Mark 3:27
No man can enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he will first bind the strong man; and then he will spoil his house.

Just who do you think the 'strong man' might be in reference to?

John 12:31
Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the prince of this world be cast out.

Interesting, isn't it, that with Christ's first coming, something unique happend that ~never~ happened before in the history of the Church. The gospel was spread through all the nations. It makes one think that perhaps the reason Satan was bound as stated in Revelation 20:3 might have some application to this fact.

I don't think the 'abyss' is a literal physical place any more than the 'chains' Satan is 'bound' with are physical chains. How can 'physical' chains bind a spiritual being?

36 posted on 08/28/2002 11:04:44 AM PDT by Jean Chauvin
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