To: angelo
According to Christian belief, God became incarnate in Jesus at a specific point in time. It is legitimate to speak in this context of "before" and "after" the incarnation. Yes, but you said "even though the act of expiation wasn't made until 1000 years later?"
The act of expiation, to God, is always present, like any other moment.
The tense of the verbs in Isaiah reflect this.
SD
To: SoothingDave
If that is the case, then why did God establish the levitical sacrificial system at all? He could've just told Moses, "Dude, don't worry about it. I'll take care of it in the future".
26 posted on
02/03/2003 2:05:21 PM PST by
malakhi
(fundamentalist unitarian)
To: SoothingDave
For that matter, why not have Jesus born at the time of Moses or Isaiah instead of when he was? He could have been executed by the Egyptians or Assyrians instead of the Romans. Why that time?
27 posted on
02/03/2003 2:06:48 PM PST by
malakhi
(fundamentalist unitarian)
To: SoothingDave; angelo
The act of expiation, to God, is always present, like any other moment. ~ SD
See what I mean, angelo, about others perverting the truth of the Bible. The atonement was given to the saints before time began, but has been revealed for us at a certain point in history. Obviously, SD, is making some kind of reference to the weekly murder of the Lord that they believe happens on their altars.
Woody.
32 posted on
02/03/2003 2:15:37 PM PST by
CCWoody
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson