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To: angelo
According to Christian belief, God became incarnate in Jesus at a specific point in time. It is legitimate to speak in this context of "before" and "after" the incarnation.

Yes, but you said "even though the act of expiation wasn't made until 1000 years later?"

The act of expiation, to God, is always present, like any other moment.

The tense of the verbs in Isaiah reflect this.

SD

25 posted on 02/03/2003 1:58:27 PM PST by SoothingDave
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To: SoothingDave
If that is the case, then why did God establish the levitical sacrificial system at all? He could've just told Moses, "Dude, don't worry about it. I'll take care of it in the future".
26 posted on 02/03/2003 2:05:21 PM PST by malakhi (fundamentalist unitarian)
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To: SoothingDave
For that matter, why not have Jesus born at the time of Moses or Isaiah instead of when he was? He could have been executed by the Egyptians or Assyrians instead of the Romans. Why that time?
27 posted on 02/03/2003 2:06:48 PM PST by malakhi (fundamentalist unitarian)
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To: SoothingDave; angelo
The act of expiation, to God, is always present, like any other moment. ~ SD Woody.
32 posted on 02/03/2003 2:15:37 PM PST by CCWoody
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