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New theory on origin of the asteroid belt
Phys.org ^ | September 14, 2017 | by Bob Yirka

Posted on 09/14/2017 11:41:53 AM PDT by BenLurkin

click here to read article


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To: Oatka

Lol the best part is the “north wind”.... in space!


41 posted on 09/15/2017 7:34:17 AM PDT by Boogieman
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To: ETL

“You are right, until a quantum entity such as an electron or proton is observed it exists only within a probability wave.”

Well, that’s one interpretation. The math works well to view the waves as “probability waves” but it doesn’t make much sense empirically. It makes more sense if the waves are just actual waves, and the “probability” is simply something inherent to the nature of matter being in a wave state.


42 posted on 09/15/2017 7:42:09 AM PDT by Boogieman
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To: reasonisfaith

Einstein got it backwards. Matter doesn’t distort space, matter IS a distortion in space. Energy is equivalent to matter so it is also a distortion in space, just at a much lower amplitude.


43 posted on 09/15/2017 7:45:25 AM PDT by Boogieman
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To: ETL

We’re getting a little closer to agreement, possibly. Having a general idea about what something is might seem very different depending on level of expertise, and whether the concept of origin is included.

Underlying all discussions of origin—in the biggest picture of all big pictures—is the question of first premise. That is, the first premise of naturalism vs the opposing view.

The naturalist can do little more than admit to being completely in the dark when asked to give an account of nature’s origin.


44 posted on 09/15/2017 7:49:48 AM PDT by reasonisfaith ("...because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved." (2 Thessalonians))
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To: Boogieman

Sounds like I can learn from you.

How can we know it’s more accurate to state “matter is a distortion in space” than “matter distorts space”?


45 posted on 09/15/2017 8:05:15 AM PDT by reasonisfaith ("...because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved." (2 Thessalonians))
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To: reasonisfaith

“How can we know it’s more accurate to state “matter is a distortion in space” than “matter distorts space”?”

Both statements are basically equivalent when it comes to describing a certain set of observations (gravity bending light, or relativistic effects near massive objects, for example), but saying “matter distorts space”, while explaining those observations, leaves us with more questions, such as “how does matter distort space?”, which is a question that isn’t easily answered.

If instead we look at matter as the actual distortion in space instead of something causing the distortion, it leads to different questions, ones that we can actually answer. For example, we would instead ask “why is space distorted such that it appears to us as matter?” and that question can be easily answered... space is distorted because it is a wave medium and the manner in which it is distorted is governed by the same wave mechanics that govern all wave mediums.


46 posted on 09/15/2017 12:40:51 PM PDT by Boogieman
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To: Boogieman

I was hoping for more than fanciful speculation.

The problem here is that those interpreting scientific literature and scientists themselves—and in fact many across academia—often believe the falsehood that man’s language can create or reinvent reality when its capacities are limited to describing discovered reality.


47 posted on 09/15/2017 4:55:56 PM PDT by reasonisfaith ("...because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved." (2 Thessalonians))
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To: blueunicorn6

Annulus = fancy word for a donut.


48 posted on 09/16/2017 10:33:08 PM PDT by Professional Engineer
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To: 75thOVI; Abathar; agrace; aimhigh; Alice in Wonderland; AndrewC; aragorn; aristotleman; ...
Note: this topic is from 9/14/2017. Thanks BenLurkin.



49 posted on 04/26/2018 6:56:46 AM PDT by SunkenCiv (www.tapatalk.com/groups/godsgravesglyphs/, forum.darwincentral.org, www.gopbriefingroom.com)
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