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On October 26, 2020, SCOTUS Ruled 5-3 That Mail-In & Absentee Ballots Had To Be In Election Officials Hands On November 3
MILWAUKEE JOURNAL SENTINEL ^
| 10/26/20
| PATRICK MARLEY
Posted on 12/11/2020 5:36:30 AM PST by Enlightened1
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To: Migraine
Iow, we have no law, that works..
21
posted on
12/11/2020 11:29:57 AM PST
by
aces
(and )
To: Enlightened1
If it’s established that the ruling in Wisconsin applies to entire USA then that’s called applying a precedent. It has to apply because voters deserve to be treated the same no matter which state they reside/vote in.
That is incorrect. If every State has to be the same, then why does the Constitution give each States' Legislature the sole power of determine elector selection? If every State had to be the same, then the Constitution would not, could not, say that. Each voter only has to be treated the same within each separate area of control. A State could pass Legislation saying that on ly people named "Joe" vote for President, and that would be perfectly Constitutional, yet obviously not 'fair'. What if a State didn't even let its people vote? Would that be fair?
Your answer had best be 'Yes', as that's exactly how the States did it in the founding times, and for many years after. 1872 was the first election wherein every State used a popular election to determine electors.
To: CharlesWayneCT
I’m confused. Trump was ahead by 700k votes when polls closed, and now gropey leads by 80k without the late ballots in philly?
To: NewJerseyJoe
Pretty sure it applies to any ballot NOT cast in person, standing in line at polls.
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