Posted on 08/13/2013 10:52:38 AM PDT by Nachum
My pleasure.
If youd like to be on or off, please FR mail me.
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Well, Jesus, like Adam, Abraham and pre-Mohammed individuals, was a Muslim according to many Muslims, so of course he'd have called it Palestine. The fact that the Romans hadn't yet invented the term to refer to the land Jews lived in is irrelevant.
Nothing worse that a low-information “Christian”.
Reza — just plain wrong...
“palestinians”: A conglomeration of former Ottoman muslim subjects from all over the place including the Balkans. The Muslim Turks practiced population transfers to achieve their ends.
I had this conversion in class in Seminary a few times. I understand people desire a phrase to use for the region that is clouded in mystery. Obviously the use by academics of the 20th century has just about sealed the deal as to referring to Israel as Palestine in the time of Christ. I think it could be gotten around by referring to it as Judea and Samaria or using the terms appropriate for the era in discussion.
However, to see how ridiculous it is I would point that academics and Christians should refer to a huge ammount of the New Testament as being in Turkey. Antioch, Smyrna, Pergamum, Philadelphia, Iconium and Lystra all in Turkey. When the apostles and churches of Turkey were around, yeah they were Turkish of course; sounds ridiculous but is equally as disingenuous.
I’ve heard them say it:
“Balezdain”.
My answer is to call Jordan “Palistine”.
Palestine” comes from the Palestinian Mandate assigned to Britain after WWI. I guess they took that from the Second Century designation by the Romans. But certainly in the time of Christ it was Judaea. To use it while dealing with Jesus and his times, it is an anachronism at best or a propoganda term that academics use to avoid the ire of the Arabs.
I just listened to the dude on my Christian radio station the other day.
What a nutter.
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