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US Policy Toward the Levant, Kurds and Turkey
Joshua Landis ^ | January 15, 2018 | Joshua Landis

Posted on 01/17/2018 2:50:35 PM PST by Texas Fossil

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To: Texas Fossil

The use of the term Levant is a dead giveaway.

Obama and his State dept stooges always used the term Levant.

It means the elimination of Israel.


21 posted on 01/18/2018 5:35:31 AM PST by MarvinStinson
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To: MarvinStinson; All
Time and again, Joshua Landis, director of the Center for Middle East Studies at the University of Oklahoma and a favorite media source on Syria, has been wrong.

Lol..why, because some queer neo-liberal blogger says so?

Kirchick is a deep state troll with more baggage than brains...quote him at your own risk.


22 posted on 01/18/2018 5:57:37 AM PST by mac_truck (aide toi et dieu t'aidera)
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To: MarvinStinson

I remember when Obama started using the term. I have no connection with the State Department.

note:

Levant>

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Levant

“The term entered English in the late 15th century from French.[4] It derives from the Italian Levante, meaning “rising”, implying the rising of the sun in the east. As such, it is broadly equivalent to the Arabic term Mashriq, meaning “the land where the sun rises”. In the 13th and 14th centuries, the term levante was used for Italian maritime commerce in the Eastern Mediterranean, including Greece, Anatolia, Syria-Palestine, and Egypt, that is, the lands east of Venice. Eventually the term was restricted to the Muslim countries of Syria-Palestine and Egypt. In 1581, England set up the Levant Company to monopolize commerce with the Ottoman Empire. The name Levant States was used to refer to the French mandate over Syria and Lebanon after World War I. This is probably the reason why the term Levant has come to be used synonymously with Syria-Palestine.”


23 posted on 01/18/2018 6:32:46 AM PST by Texas Fossil ((Texas is not where you were born, but a Free State of Heart, Mind & Attitude!))
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