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To: unlearner
Interesting. I also take scripture literally but try to frame it in context. According to my research/Scoffield Bible.

It seems there was a question if the gentiles were under ‘the law’. This appears to show that they were exempted ‘Ye are not under the law, but under grace’ Rom 6:14.
Gentile believers were to show grace by abstaining from the practices offensive to godly Jews. That's what is addressed in Acts.
It would seem to be pertinent for that time as I don't know of Jews being offended by those things; albeit the few I know. It may be different in Israel though or in the Orthodox community. If that is so, then we would need to abstain in order not to offend.

That's what I interpreted.

86 posted on 01/05/2011 12:04:05 AM PST by Outlaw Woman
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To: Outlaw Woman

That approach does not work. It does not say anything in this passage about worrying over who was offended by their food. Paul does offer some explanation in this regard as to meat offered to idols, but not so on the issue of blood.

The issue at hand was settled, namely that Gentiles do not have to become Jews to be saved. These four things were the only outward ordinances of the Law that God saw fit to include in the initial instructions to the Gentile believers from the apostles.

God told Noah, when meat was first allowed to be eaten, not to eat the blood. This was long before the Law of Moses. And everyone, Jews and Gentiles, are Noah’s descendants.

Christians have just decided to ignore this issue. I am not trying to make a mountain out of a mole hill. A balanced approach shows there are obviously many things far more important based on how much time is devoted to the issue. However, it is still the clear instruction of the Bible.


100 posted on 01/05/2011 9:25:27 PM PST by unlearner (You will never come to know that which you do not know until you first know that you do not know it.)
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