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To: Billthedrill
No. Apart from the fact that there weren't any states in 1776, Rhode Island had banned it in 1652. First colony to do so. Also, at the time, the biggest importer of slaves. There's a bit of history trivia for you.

States, Colonies, they are still the same people and the same land, so the distinction is just a distraction. Also I find sources that dispute your claim that slavery was banned in Rhode Island.

http://slavenorth.com/rhodeisland.htm

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_Rhode_Island#Slavery

In February 1784 the Legislature passed a compromise measure for gradual emancipation. All children of slaves born after March 1 were to be "apprentices," the girls to become free at 18, the boys at 21. As with other Northern instances of gradual emancipation, this gave slaveowners many years of service to recoup the cost of raising the children.

No slaves were emancipated outright. The 1800 census listed 384 slaves, and the number fell gradually to 5 in 1840, after which slaves were no longer counted in the censuses for the state. And, in an essential element of the 1784 compromise, the right of Rhode Island ship-owners to participate in the foreign slave trade was undisturbed.


63 posted on 12/05/2014 11:12:18 AM PST by DiogenesLamp (Partus Sequitur Patrem)
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To: DiogenesLamp
Uh...this is from your own source:

In 1652, Rhode Island passed the first abolition law in the thirteen colonies, banning African slavery.[13]

HERE

It's about halfway down.

64 posted on 12/05/2014 11:16:28 AM PST by Billthedrill
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