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To: luvadavi

The Court can only act when Congress raises the question of elibility.
***Can you please point that out in the statutes or the constitution? I’ve been following this issue for a long time and it’s the first I’ve heard of that.


17 posted on 12/22/2008 10:40:38 AM PST by Kevmo ( It's all over for this Country as a Constitutional Republic. ~Leo Donofrio, 12/14/08)
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To: Kevmo

I’ve seen it in posts in the last week or so—one yesterday which was posted last night or the 20th. Let me check.


19 posted on 12/22/2008 10:52:10 AM PST by luvadavi (Chinese curse: may you live in interesting times...)
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To: Kevmo; Calpernia
OK: It was in an article posted yesterday by Calpernia, 'Open Letter'--in post #12 , 21st CenturyFreeThinker explains that Congress has to raise the objection first, then it can go to SCOTUS.

I could link this for you if I had any sense and knew how...anyway, this may be why the SC has denied the cases so far. For all we know, there may be a good number of reps willing to object. But would you bet the farm?

It's beyond disheartening to see this so-obvious fraud --and dangerous man--get away with this!

24 posted on 12/22/2008 11:25:22 AM PST by luvadavi (Chinese curse: may you live in interesting times...)
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