How can he conspire to abuse a child if there is no abuse? Since he was convicted of child abuse but he did not abuse the child, presumably someone else did. Why is the other person not up on charges?
It's called Conspiracy.
Can a preacher specifically tell his members that the Bible instructs them to kill their wives, or to poke out their eyes as punishment, and to do it when no witnesses are around to see it(this part I know is not in the Bible) , and not be held partially responsible for the outcomes when a bunch of them do? Let's use some common sense.
Where do you get the idea that only he was charged? This bogus post?