Posted on 03/18/2008 10:21:29 PM PDT by Ernest_at_the_Beach
fyi
I described this exact same model a few years back here but it was rejected by some of the hard core eggheads.
If we put 100 pennies in a bag and dump them out, the odds are very, very slim we get 50-50.
Say we get 42-48. The 42 antimatters neutralize 42 of the matters, dumping out a huge amount of energy (and mass itself in the form of neutrinos), and leaves 6 of the original 100 that are detectable.
I’m not sure what the average of the deviation from 50-50 would be, but if that expected average matches whatever observables there are, then people ought to give it some serious consideration.
And my bad... 42 and 48 is 90. I meant 52-48.
Same principle.
Particle physicists have long thought that they might find such evidence in a particle called the Bs meson, which comprises a bottom antiquark bound to a strange quark. The Bs is one of a handful of mesons that transforms into its own antiparticle and back again 3 trillion times per second before decaying into other particles (see Diagram). These oscillations between matter and antimatter make it a good place to look for evidence that CP violation goes beyond the standard model.
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I knew it.! The ol’ Bs meson, Of course, its its so elementary.. <8-}
We need to start research BS meson extensively! Or else we are gonna have a BS meson gap!
Now that is fast....
back when your eyesight was sharper no doubt,, ;-)
3 trillion times a second.. wow.. I guess they don’t call it a strange quark for nothing.
a BS gap, eh, would that make it eligible to be called an Obameson
thanks Ernest.
They don't call it "nothing" to be strange.
yitbos
That's why they can't find it. The calculation is B mesoned up. It should be 3.1416 X 10**12.
Where's my million bucks.
yitbos
Thanks for the ping
Now that is some heavyweight physiscs!
or maybe not if the bottom antiquark becomes unbound to the strange quark
The universe may disintegrate in the blink of an eye! oh my, oh my!
You owe me a dime.
Im not sure what the average of the deviation from 50-50 would be,
In N independent trials of an experiment with a probability of success (heads) equal to p, the average number of successes would be p*N and the variance would be p*(1-p)*N. (Standard deviation sqrt(p*(1-p)*N))). In a hundred trials with a fair coin, the mean would be 50, and the standard deviation would be 5. About two thirds of the time, you would expect to get between 45 and 55 heads (or tails.)
As the number of trials grows arbitrarily large the distribution approaches a normal distribution (DeMoivre-LaPlace theorem, a special case of the central limit theorem.) For most purposes, one can make practial predictions about likelihoods of outcomes by assuming the population conforms to a normal distribution, but care needs to be taken for tail probabilities. See the binomial distribution for all the gory details.
The ratio of to the standard deviation to the mean decreases as 1/sqrt(N), regardless of p, for p not equal to zero or one. (In which cases, the std. dev. is zero.)
I have regular plain old BASIC somewhere. Suppose if I got ambitious, I could run it through ten thousand trials or so.
Then convert the program to do roulette...
;-)
Lots of BS here!
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