That didn't clear it up. The Old Testament doesn't mention India until the Book of Esther, which is somewhat younger than these Keezhadi finds.
No one was there before the old testament? Why not? How come? proven how? Prove no one lived there before this time.
Territory borders in the Americas were defined by dialect and the ability to understand the deep southern drawl or not.
But they had a universal physical sign language that was understood by all tribes and clans everywhere.
Not being written and recorded as word means not a thing...